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 Ball in Hand in 8 ball with one ball left

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BigRigTom Posted - 06/09/2009 : 5:58:05 PM
Our player last night had ball in hand (his right hand to be specific), he had only the 5 ball left then the 8 ball.

For some reason (don't ask) he reached and picked up the 5 ball with his left hand.

Is that a foul? We did not call a foul nor did his opponent. The 5 was replace and the game continued.

As it turned out, he lost the match anyway so no big deal either way but I found myself wondering later if that should have been a foul.

BigRigTom
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Keith Posted - 06/10/2009 : 3:27:12 PM
From what I have been told if he is holding the cue ball then his body is now considered the cue ball. Under that it is a foul the way you explained it. Why would he pick up the 5?

There are no stupid questions except the one you just asked.

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