| T O P I C R E V I E W |
| Vivvo |
Posted - 10/02/2005 : 7:33:03 PM
But I don't know - Here is the scenario...when someone has hooked me - and I've kicked at the ball - with the intent of "just making legal contact" and just so happening getting a good roll and leaving my opponent a difficult shot I have been marked by the opposing team as shooting a defensive shot. Is this right? Because to me - this ideally would with every person who shoots a successful safety you are essentially shooting one too - when you get up to the table no matter what. I am not too sure if I described this correctly - but can someone - or Phil please clarify?
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| 6 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First) |
| Torsten |
Posted - 10/05/2005 : 12:14:31 PM
Excellent. Thanks, Phil.
Going to church doesn't make you a Christian any more than standing in a bathroom makes you a toilet. |
| Phil |
Posted - 10/05/2005 : 09:34:01 AM
quote:
Originally posted by Torsten
I'm glad somebody posted this. Again, it may seem like I'm trying to be a pain in the butt, but given the amount of times I have been mistaken about a rule interpretation I'm gonna ask anyway. How do you classify a madjack shot? For example, I'm stuck in a position on the table where there is no logical offensive shot. My decided course of action would be to madjack the cue into a group of balls hoping that perhaps I slop something in or end up in a better scenario for it. I guess my question is, does madjacking the ball count as 'intent to pocket.' My guess would be yes, even though people usually employ the madjack out of frustration or lack of having a realistic shot to intend to pocket. Am I making sense here?
That would not be a defensive shot. You're giving your object ball(s) a chance to find a pocket, even if you don't know what pocket they may find. The same would be true with a normal kick. If you're just trying to get a hit, it's defensive, but if you hit it with enough pace to go somewhere, it's not.
Phil
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| Torsten |
Posted - 10/05/2005 : 09:03:32 AM
I'm glad somebody posted this. Again, it may seem like I'm trying to be a pain in the butt, but given the amount of times I have been mistaken about a rule interpretation I'm gonna ask anyway. How do you classify a madjack shot? For example, I'm stuck in a position on the table where there is no logical offensive shot. My decided course of action would be to madjack the cue into a group of balls hoping that perhaps I slop something in or end up in a better scenario for it. I guess my question is, does madjacking the ball count as 'intent to pocket.' My guess would be yes, even though people usually employ the madjack out of frustration or lack of having a realistic shot to intend to pocket. Am I making sense here?
Going to church doesn't make you a Christian any more than standing in a bathroom makes you a toilet. |
| Vivvo |
Posted - 10/04/2005 : 6:18:27 PM
Thanks for the clarification! |
| Taz |
Posted - 10/03/2005 : 08:12:33 AM
Every team packet has a "Defensive Shots" write-up. It is a canary yellow paper located on the right-hand side of the folder. Ask your captain to share it with you. BigSi is correct. Regardless of what occurs during the execution of a shot, IF, IN THE SCOREKEEPER'S OPINION, A PLAYER DID NOT INTEND TO POCKET A BALL, MARK IT AS A DEFNESIVE SHOT. |
| BigSi |
Posted - 10/02/2005 : 11:06:57 PM
Hope this helps! Any time you shoot with no intent to pocket a ball, this would be considered a defensive shot, reguardless of what situation you find yourself in. |
