| T O P I C R E V I E W |
| jughead |
Posted - 09/04/2010 : 6:15:46 PM
I have a question that hopefully someone can help me out with. A few weeks back during a match my player missed a shot and left the other opponent a long shot full length of the table. He took a few minutes looking at the two balls he was gonna hit(he didnt have a shot so he wanted to make contact)anyway, my player had two balls on the table not including the 8 ball. Cue ball was right next to the 8 ball on the otherside of the table. This guy, instead of hitting the cue ball hits the 8 ball into his two balls down the table. My question is; cue ball foul, ball in hand? or no foul and the table plays as it lies? My impression and from other senior players have told me is that if the "your opponents balls have been affected by the illegal move then it is ball in hand". Both of us agreed to ball in hand but with some doubt. Can someone help clear this up. Thanks. |
| 5 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First) |
| movistar |
Posted - 09/10/2010 : 3:20:28 PM
in my opinion..(usually doesn't count).... anytime a ball is moved accidently or otherwise... It can NEVER be moved back EXACTLY where it was.. (law of physics) and therefore the playing field changes.... it should always be a foul to move a ball... lets quit being a baby league and play like we want to learn and play the game right !!!
doesn't take long for a player to learn that they have to be careful while shooting..... |
| Moose Dragon |
Posted - 09/07/2010 : 07:22:48 AM
Yeah I do this all the time. That pesky 8-ball looks sooo much like the cue ball I keep hitting it instead. Actually I have done this with the 9-ball.
If you were to say moving the balls on the table without the cue ball is a foul then where do you draw the line. How many times have you bumped a ball with your hand trying to make a bridge? Should that be a foul? You moved a ball it could change the dynamics of the table. A rule like this has to be all or nothing there can be no judgement. Either it is never a foul or any wrong movement of the object balls is a foul. I personally think the rule is right the way it is. What happened in your game rarely happens.
These are the opinons of the poster and are not necessarily shared by me or anyone else. |
| jughead |
Posted - 09/05/2010 : 5:13:12 PM
Yes, he hit the 8 with his cue as if it were the cue ball. He had two balls left not including the 8 ball. I was told before that if any object ball is struck without the cue being hit first and if it changes the dynamic of the game as far as path of the balls, it was ball in hand. To just hit any ball and it not be a fool is kinda silly. Weather they meant to or not, it should be a ball in hand foul. I believe. But rules are rules I guess, everyone disagrees with the rules at some point. |
| Phil |
Posted - 09/04/2010 : 9:45:56 PM
If the cue ball wasn't affected, no foul. Put all balls back and the same player shoots.
Phil
|
| Showtime |
Posted - 09/04/2010 : 9:04:21 PM
Hits the eight ball with the cue stick?
if yes to the question, then
To start, I'm not positive in my position, but I believe the balls on the table would have to be replaced (put back to where they were) and it may be a sportsmanship ball in hand or sportsmanship warning with it being the opponents turn again? Again though, I'm not positive.
if no to the very first question, then
How many balls did the opposing player have on the table?
If I disagree with you, it is because I am right. |
