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 Cue ball fouls
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Mike


1 Posts

Posted - 12/20/2007 :  12:38:22 AM  Show Profile  Visit Mike's Homepage  Reply with Quote
The following occurred when I was playing a practice game using APA rules-

My opponent was shooting at his ball and missed it. The cue ball continued forward, hit the rail, and rebounded back toward a group of balls on the other end of the table, none of which were his. Before the cue ball hit those balls, he intentionally picked up the cue while it was still travelling and declared "ball-in-hand."

My question is: what is the penalty for this situation?
I know that ball-in-hand is awarded for the scratch, but is there a penalty for interfering with the cue ball as well? My opponent claimed that the ball-in-hand covered both fouls, but I think he is wrong. I played the shot without protesting too much, as I didnt know what the correct ruling is. I thought I had read that rule once before in the book but couldnt find it later.

What is the APA ruling? Your comments appreciated.

Have a Merry Christmas & Happy 2008
Mike Castanon

Kerry Randolph


USA
172 Posts

Posted - 12/20/2007 :  08:24:48 AM  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
Any time there is a reason to pickup any ball off the table, whether it is a foul or end of the game all balls on the table must come to a complete stop. Now there is common sense involved. If the cue ball is slowly rolling and almost stopped and is nowhere near another ball or pocket then no big deal. However if it is traveling with any speed at all and it could affect the position of the other balls on the table or if it could scratch than let it stop.

I believe this is a sportsmanship issue. Your opponent or their captain should be told this if it happens. If the player continues and is doing it to gain an advantage than a call to the league office is appropriate.

It is better to keep your mouth shut and appear stupid than to open it and remove all doubt
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trhxke


USA
142 Posts

Posted - 12/20/2007 :  12:12:51 PM  Show Profile  Visit trhxke's Homepage  Send trhxke a Yahoo! Message  Reply with Quote
quote:
[i]Originally posted by Mike[/i]
[br]The following occurred when I was playing a practice game using APA rules-

My opponent was shooting at his ball and missed it. The cue ball continued forward, hit the rail, and rebounded back toward a group of balls on the other end of the table, none of which were his. Before the cue ball hit those balls, he intentionally picked up the cue while it was still travelling and declared "ball-in-hand."

My question is: what is the penalty for this situation?
I know that ball-in-hand is awarded for the scratch, but is there a penalty for interfering with the cue ball as well? My opponent claimed that the ball-in-hand covered both fouls, but I think he is wrong. I played the shot without protesting too much, as I didnt know what the correct ruling is. I thought I had read that rule once before in the book but couldnt find it later.

What is the APA ruling? Your comments appreciated.

Have a Merry Christmas & Happy 2008
Mike Castanon



I had this exact scenario happen to me once. The cue ball if allowed to continue would have broken out the 4&5 balls while my opponent had been shooting at the 3 ball and missed it completely.
I would have had ball in hand on the 3 and the 4&5 would have both been open for a possible run out.
By stopping the cue ball prematurely my opponent made it virtually impossible for me to run out. He said he did not do it on purpose but I was not so sure.

Regardless...it was a ball in hand foul for failing to hit his object ball. That is all.

The other thing could be call an unsportsman like act and I could have written him up for that but that is it. Since he claimed he did not do it on purpose, I gave him the benefit of the doubt and let it go. That made for a more enjoyable match for me and I figure if he had to cheat to beat me it was his conscience that would suffer not my ego.

Tom Hardinger
www.BigRigToys.com
Your Internet Source for pool cues, cases, table accessories, darts and various collectibles.
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Edited by - trhxke on 12/20/2007 12:15:04 PM
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Torsten


USA
401 Posts

Posted - 12/21/2007 :  12:06:43 PM  Show Profile  Visit Torsten's Homepage  Reply with Quote
I dunno if this falls under "urban legend", but little birds, elves, and other mythical creatures have told me in the past that failing to let the cue ball come to its natural fault can result in a double foul in high level tournaments, meaning the opponent gets to shoot consecutive shots placing the white ball where he/she wishes.

I think the worst time to have a heart attack would be during a game of charades... or during a game of fake heart attack.
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rhaydt

USA
109 Posts

Posted - 12/21/2007 :  1:58:02 PM  Show Profile  Visit rhaydt's Homepage  Reply with Quote
I have never seen a double foul get granted, but it could happen as the result of bad sportsmanship. Plus picking up the cue ball could result in loss of game in 8-ball, if you were shooting at the 8-ball and there was a chance of scracthing on the shot.
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D-RACK


USA
321 Posts

Posted - 12/26/2007 :  12:42:49 PM  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
"I have never seen a double foul get granted, but it could happen as the result of bad sportsmanship. Plus picking up the cue ball could result in loss of game in 8-ball, if you were shooting at the 8-ball and there was a chance of scracthing on the shot."



Who is to say they is a chance of the ball scratching? I mean using common sense. But i have seen players make the 8 and then stop the cue... Where does it become an issue? Richard wanna start a new thread on this subject?
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